Example 7.4.6(a): Lebesgue Integral for Bounded Functions |
Is the function f(x) = x Lebesgue integrable over [0, 1]? If so, find the integral. |
We know that | f(x) |
1 over
the interval [0, 1]. Define sets:
E1 = { xfor j = 1, 2, ..., n. Because f is continuous, the sets Ej are measurable (really?), they are disjoint, and their union (over the j's) equals [0, 1] (actually, the union equals [0, 1), but that does not matter - why?).[0, 1]: 0
f(x) < 1/n }
E2 = { x[0, 1]: 1/n
f(x) < 2/n }
E3 = { x[0, 1]: 2/n
f(x) < 3/n }
...
Ej = { x[0, 1]: (j-1)/n
f(x) < j/n}
Now define two simple functions
Sn(x) =Fix an integer n and take a number x in [0, 1). Then x must be contained in exactly one set Ej, and on that set we havej/n XEj(x)
sn(x) =(j-1)/n XEj(x)
sn(x) = (j-1)/nTherefore, on all of [0, 1], we know thatf(x) < j/n = Sn(x)
sn(x)But thenf(x)
Sn(x)
I*(f)LTherefore![]()
Sn(x) dx = 1/n
j m(Ej)
I*(f)L![]()
sn(x) dx = 1/n
(j-1) m(Ej)
I*(f)L - I*(f)LSince n was arbitrary the upper and lower Lebesgue integrals must agree, hence the function f is integrable.1/n
(j - (j-1)) m(Ej) =
= 1/nm(Ej) = 1/n m([0, 1]) = 1/n
Note that - with a few simple modifications - this proof could show that every bounded function f which has the property that the sets Ej are measurable is Lebesgue integrable.
It remains, though, to find the actual value of the integral. But we can easily compute the measure of the sets Ej: for a fixed n we have
m( Ej ) = m({ xFrom the above computation it follows that[0, 1]: (j-1)/n
f(x) < j/n}) =
= m({ x[0, 1]: (j-1)/n
x < j/n}) =
= m( [(j-1)/n, j/n] ) = 1/n
which is, incidentally, the same value as for the Riemann integral.f(x) dx = lim 1/n
j m(Ej) =
= lim 1/nj 1/n = = lim 1/n2
j =
= lim 1/n2 1/2 n (n-1) = 1/2